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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions - #NCSOLVE πŸ“š

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Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

  • There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D- Economics.
  • Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
  • Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  • Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  • Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  • There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
  • The map-based questions carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following.

List I List II
A. Frederic Sorrieu 1. Torch of enlightenments
B Statue of Liberty 2. Shattered remains of absolutist institutions
C. Foreground in front of the Statue of Liberty 3. Democratic and Social Republics
D. Sorrieu’s utopian vision 4. French Artist

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 1
Answer:
(a) 4,1,2,3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 2.
Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 2
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer:
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question 3.
Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to
(a) Widespread poverty and deadly diseases
(b) Frequent famines and poor living conditions
(c) Continuous wars and political instability
(d) Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters
Answer:
(c) Widespread poverty and deadly diseases

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 4.
Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?
(a) Educated classes who wanted to change the society
(b) Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
(c) Authors of the new books
(d) Printing press
Answer:
(b) Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church

Question 5.
“The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.
Or
‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’. Explain the statement.
Answer:
The given statement can be justified in the following ways

  • Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-East Asia also travelled the same route. In return, precious metals gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
  • Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Buddhism from India spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

Or
New crops like potatoes could make the difference between life and death in the following ways

  • It was with the introduction of the humble potato that Europe’s poor began to eat well, eat better and live longer.
  • Ireland’s poor peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when the potato crop was destroyed by disease in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands of peasants died of starvation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 6.
‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.
Or
Salt March ‘became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
Cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India. This can be explained through following examples

  • Figure or Image The identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. This image was created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
  • Songs Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. It was included in his novel Anandmath and widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
  • Folklore Indian folklore was revived. These tales gave a true picture of traditional culture. It helped to restore a sense of pride in our past.

Or
Salt became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism because of the following reasons

  • Gandhiji found in salt a powerful bond that would unite the nations as it was consumed by all rich and poor alike.
  • Gandhiji’s letter to Viceroy Irwin stated eleven demands. Most of them were of general interest but the most stirring was to abolish the salt tax imposed by the colonial government.
  • People in different parts of the country broke salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of the government salt factories.

Question 7.
‘In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution but was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyse this statement with suitable reasons.
Or
‘The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the significant provisions of this treaty.
Answer:
The given statement can be analysed by the following reasons

  • The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
  • The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
  • This enabled England to impose its influence on Scotland. Whose distinctive culture and political institutions were systematically suppressed.
  • The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress. They were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
  • The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic country.
  • The symbols of the new Britain – the British flag, the national anthem and the English language were actively promoted. The older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.

Or
Significant provisions of treaty of Vienna are as follows

  • The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power.
  • Prussia was given important new territories on its Western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy.
  • A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future
  • In the East, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
  • The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon and create a new conservative order in Europe.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
Why Newspapers?
Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in the Marathi Language with a view of affording, useful information on every topic of local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics, curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially… the patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and welfare of the people is earnestly solicited.
Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6th January, 1849
“The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role of the opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is to critically examine government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence”.
(i) Explain the main reason for publishing newspapers by Krishna ji.
(ii) How was the task of native newspaper and political association seen identical to the role of the opposition?
(iii) Analyse the reasons for the popularity of newspapers during the 19th century.
Answer:
(i) Krishnaji wanted to publish significant information about societal developments in the areas of politics, science and other fields in order to inform the public.

(ii) The task of native newspaper and political association was seen identical to the role of the opposition because the media used to criticise and analyse government policies same as local newspapers and political organisations. As a result, both of these served as the government’s opposition.

(iii) Reasons for popularity of newspapers during 19th century are as follows

  • They provided a free platform for open discussion on important topics.
  • Newspapers Created awareness about scientific, historical and local issues.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Map Based Question:

Question 9.
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map.
A. The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B. The city where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 3
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 4

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development?
(a) The availability of resources alone is enough.
(b) The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
(c) Technological development and institutional changes.
(d) Only human resources can contribute to development.
Answer:
(c) Technological development and institutional changes.

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes.
(a) Black soil, Red and Yellow soils
(b) Laterite soil, Black soil.
(c) Red and Yellow soils and Black soil.
(d) Black soil and Laterite soil.

Classification of Soils
Alluvial ? ?
Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Ideal for growing cotton suitable for crops like cashew nut.

Answer:
(d) Black soil and Laterite soil.

Question 12.
A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349 people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with Maharashtra alone recording 200 deaths.
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on the tiger population?
(a) Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger’s food supply.
(b) Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
(c) Rise in the tiger population.
(d) Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks
Answer:
(a) Reduction in the prey species leading to the tiger’s dwindling food supply

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 13.
Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most likely apply to states like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala?
(a) These states mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation.
(b) They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest conservation.
(c) They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
(d) There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private ownership.
Answer:
(a) These states mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation.

Question 14.
Which one of the following states has made rooftop water harvesting compulsory in India?
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Assam
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 15.
Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?
(a) Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
(b) To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers.
(c) Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
(d) Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
(b) To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers.

Question 16.
Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
Answer:
Rice cultivation differs in these regions because o the following reasons

  • Punjab and Haryana have well-developed irrigation systems and suitable climate for commercial rice cultivation, unlike Odisha, where rice farming is mostly rainfed and dependent on monsoons.
  • Punjab and Haryana benefit from better market access, government procurement and transport, making rice a commercial crop; Odisha lacks such infrastructure, so rice is mainly grown for local use.

Question 17.
Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture. Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.
Or
‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its different forms.
Answer:
The possible reasons behind the advice given to her are as follows

  • Odisha was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016-17.
  • It is a good alternative to other metals due to its extreme lightness.
  • It has good conductivity.
  • Proximity to raw material reduces transport cost and increases profitability.
  • Availability of cheap local labour.

Or
Significant role played by coal in growth of Indian economy are as follows

  • Power Generation Coal is the main fuel used for thermal power plants, which generate a large portion of electricity in India.
  • Industrial and Domestic Use It supplies essential energy to industries like iron and steel, and is also used for domestic needs in some regions.
  • Commercial Energy Source India depends heavily on coal to meet its commercial energy requirements, especially in metallurgical industries.
  • Variety of Types Coal is found in different forms like peat, lignite, bituminous, and anthracite, each with specific uses.
  • Economic Growth Driver Coal supports employment, transport, and industrial growth, making it a backbone for India’s economic development.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains, sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.

Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas, and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most.

Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such linkages systematically.
(i) Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050?
(ii) How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with examples.
(iii) Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.
Answer:
(i) Global waste expected to increase by 2050 due to intensive material production and consumption.
(ii) Different types of pollution caused by manufacturing industries are

  • Water pollution through dumping of chemical waste into rivers.
  • Chemical pollution by using and disposing of toxic substances like mercury and lead.

(iii) Yes, it is correct, pollution worsens poverty and inequality because poor people are more exposed to harmful environments and cannot afford protection. It leads to diseases, poor living conditions and loss of income.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols
I. (a) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel power production and irrigation.
Or (b) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with flood control.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) A major sea port in West Bengal
(ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
(iii) An international airport in Punjab
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 6

Section C. (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(a) I and II

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 21.
The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically rivals to each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 5
(a) Coalition Government.
(b) Two Party System.
(c) Democratic government.
(d) Bi-party system.
Answer:
(a) Coalition Government.

Question 22.
Suppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency notes of different denominations in order to curb the influence of black money. The Government of one state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state government stop the union government from implementing this policy?
(a) Yes, because currency is the subject of State List
(b) No, because currency is a subject of Union List
(c) Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement this change.
(d) No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.
Answer:
(b) No, because Currency is a subject of Union List

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Read the statements carefully and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in democracy.
Reason (R) It can divert attention from other important issues thus leading to tensions, conflicts and even violence.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
Highlight any two key features of federalism.
Answer:
Two key features of Indian federalism are as follows:

  • There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
  • Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government.

Question 25.
‘Women in India face discrimination, disadvantages and oppression in many ways.’ Highlight any two aspects of life where you witness this inequality.
Answer:
Two aspects where women face inequalities are as follows

  • Parents prefer to spend their resources for their sons education rather than daughters.
  • Despite the Equal Wages of Act women are paid less than men, even when both do exactly the same work.

Question 26.
‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ Support thts statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
The given statement can be explained with the following arguments

  • Democracies accommodate various social divisions. For example, Belgium has peacefully solved its ethnic problems and solved the differences.
  • Democracy teaches people to respect the differences and resolve conflicts among different groups peacefully.
  • A democratic government ensures that the rule by the majority does not become autocratic in terms of religion, race or linguistic group etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 27.
‘Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy.’ Explain.
Or
The challenge of dynastic succession is undoubtedly a major challenge for political parties in India.’ Analyse the statement’.
Answer:
Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy in the following ways

  • Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by political parties.
  • Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
  • Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve people’s problems.
  • Parties put forward different policies and programmes.
  • Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice their views by criticising the government for its failure or wrong policies.

Or
This statement can be analysed through the following points

  • Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
  • Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members.
  • In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family.
  • People who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.
  • More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of Majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. Over the years, it created feelings of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. On the other hand, the Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. Source-Adapted from Power Sharing, NCERT
(i) State any two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka.
(ii) State the results of the Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka.
(iii) Explain any two provisions of the Belgian model of power sharing.
Answer:
(i) Two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka are

  • To recognise Tamil as official language.
  • Equality of opportunities in securing education and jobs.

(ii) The Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka created a distrust between Tamils and Sinhala communities which resulted in civil war. As a result, thousands of people of both communities were killed and many families were forced to leave the country as refugees.

(iii) Two provisions of Belgium model of power sharing are as follows

  • Brussels has a separate government in which Dutch and French have equal representation.
  • Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the country.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Underemployment is caused when
(a) More workers are employed than actually required
(b) Fewer workers are employed than actually required
(c) Workers are paid more than their actual output
(d) Jobs are given only to highly educated workers
Answer:
(a) More workers are employed than actually required

Question 30.
What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the answer.
(a) It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a country.
(b) The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is per capita income.
(c) It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.
(d) It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other important factors.
Answer:
(c) It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 31.
Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports both the primary and secondary sectors?
(a) Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no transportation or storage involved.
(b) A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product, relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.
(c) A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials.
(d) A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or retail services to sell the product.
Answer:
(b) A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product, relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.

Question 32.
Which one of the following issues currency notes in India?
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Central Bank of India
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Question 33.
Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you think will be used by him/her?
(a) It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.
(b) The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties already know what they need from the transaction.
(c) It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly what they want.
(d) The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct need for each other’s goods.
Answer:
(a) It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.

Question 34.
Match the following.

List I List II
A. Increased foreign investment 1. Expansion of global markets and access to technology
B. Cultural exchange and awareness 2. Loss of traditional jobs due to automation and cheaper labor elsewhere
C. Techonological exchange and awareness 3. Spread of cultural practices, ideas and values across borders
D. Growth of multinational corporations 4. Large companies becoming dominant players in global markets

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions 7
Answer:
(d) 1 3 2 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 35.
Evaluate the utility of public services in contributing to the overall well-being of individuals and society.
Answer:
Utility of public services in contributing to overall well-being of individuals and society can be evaluated through the following points

  • Accessible and quality public healthcare, is fundamental for maintaining, a productive and healthy population.
  • Public education systems are essential for providing equal learning opportunities to all citizens, regardless of socio-economic status.
  • Proper sanitation and access to clean water are vital for maintaining public health and preventing diseases such as cholera and dysentery.

Question 36.
‘Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical that these loans are accessible to all people for national development.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:
Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical that these loans are accessible to all people for national development because of following reasons

  • Higher cost of borrowing from informal sources means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. Hence, borrowers will have less income left for themselves
  • In certain cases, the high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower.
  • People who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing may not do so because of the high cost of borrowing.

Question 37.
Highlight the significant three factors that have contributed to the growth of globalisation.
Answer:
Three factors that have contributed to the growth of globalisation are as follows:

  • Many countries have reduced trade barriers like taxes and import duties, allowing free flow of goods, services, and investments across borders.
  • The internet, mobile phones, and computers have made it quicker to exchange information and manage businesses globally.
  • Faster and cheaper transport has made it easier to move goods and people across countries.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Question 38.
A research student spoke with two people, M and N to learn about their work-related differences. On the basis of the interview conducted with both of them, the student concludes that while person $M$ was working in an organized sector, person N was an employee of a workplace that was functioning in an unorganised way. Analyse the key differences between the two sectors that must have enabled the research student to come to this conclusion.
Or
Privatisation can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. Support the statement with argument.
Answer:
The key difference between two sectors are as follows.

Feature Person M (Formal Sector) Person N (Informal Sector)
Type of Employment Regular and fixed-term employment Irregular and low-paid employment
Government

Regulation

Registered with the government; follows laws like Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act Operates outside government control; few or no legal protections
Job Security Job is secure with fixed working hours No job security; workers can be removed without notice
Overtime Pay Paid for working extra hours No overtime payment
Employee Benefits Receives paid leave, medical benefits, PF, gratuity No benefits like leave or medical facilities

Or
Privatisation has both positive and negative impacts on the economy. This can be explained by the following
Positive Effects

  • It leads to increased efficiency and productivity as private companies work with better management and competition.
  • It helps in improving the quality of services like transport, telecom, and banking.
  • It reduces the burden on the government, allowing it to focus on other important areas like health and education.

Negative Effects

  • Private companies mainly work for profit, which can lead to neglect of public welfare.
  • Job security of workers may decrease due to cost-cutting by private firms.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.



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