CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 with Solutions - #NCSOLVE 📚

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hrs .
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B-Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:
(a) 1 2 3 4

Question 2.
Which industry in Britain was the first to be industrialised? (1)
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Shipbuilding
(c) Cotton textile
(d) Coal mining
Answer:
(c) Cotton textile

Question 3.
The following image is a caricature of which personality in the German Reichstag (Parliament) from Figaro, Vienna? (1)
.
(a) King Victor Emmanuel II
(b) Otto von Bismarck
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
Answer:
(b) Otto von Bismarck

Question 4.
Why was India referred to as a “Britain’s supplier of raw material and market for goods” in the 19th century? (1)
(a) India was an economically advanced industrial hub
(b) British policy deindustrialised India and used it to support their own economy
(c) Indians refused to trade with other countries
(d) Britain never invested in Indian infrastructure
Answer:
(b) British policy deindustrialised India and used it to support their own economy

Question 5.
“The Silk Route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.” Explain with two examples.(2)
Or
“Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.” Explain the statement.
Answer:
The Silk Route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural connections because

• Chinese silk, pottery and spices were traded to distant regions such as Europe and West Asia, while gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia.
• The route also facilitated the spread of ideas, traditions and religions such as Buddhism from India to China and other parts of Asia.
• Thus, the silk route not only linked distant economies but also promoted cultural and religious exchanges across continents.

Or
New crops could make the difference between life and death. The introduction of the potato to Ireland, for example, boosted the population by providing a nutritious food source.
However, its widespread dependency also proved fatal when the potato plague caused the Great Irish Famine, leading to mass death and migration.

Question 6.
Explain with examples how early satyagrahas (1917-18) shaped Gandhian mass politics in India. (3)
Or
“Print culture created conditions for the French Revolution.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
Early satyagrahas (1917-18) shaped Gandhian mass politics in India in the following ways

• Champaran (1917) Indigo cultivators resisted the coercive tinkathia system. Gandhi set up inquiries, mobilised villagers for legal aid and hygiene campaigns, and negotiated partial refunds and relief from planters’ exactions.
• Ahmedabad (1918) In a dispute over the plague bonus, Gandhi led a disciplined strike, used arbitration and a public fast, and secured a reasonable wage increase.
• Kheda (1918) After crop failure, peasants collectively withheld revenue; satyagraha committees maintained non-violence until the government granted suspension and remission of taxes.

Or
Print culture created conditions for the French Revolution in the following ways

• Enlightenment works by Voltaire, Rousseau, and others spread ideas of reason, natural rights, and the social contract, directly challenging divine right monarchy and entrenched social privilege.
• Pamphlets, plays, and biting caricatures desacralised the king and court, exposing waste, scandal, and corruption, steadily weakening obedience and deference.
• Cheap print-almanacs, chapbooks, and newspapers-created a mass reading public and spaces for debate; clubs and salons amplified arguments on taxation, censorship, and citizenship, preparing minds and networks for revolutionary action in 1789.

Question 7.
“German unification was a long process achieved under Prussian leadership.” Analyse the statement. (5)
Or
“The Great Depression of 1929-mid-1930s severely affected economies across the world, including colonial India.” Highlight its major effects on India’s economy and society.
Answer:
German unification was a gradual process that began after the fall of the Holy Roman Empire in 1806. The German Confederation, formed in 1815, failed to bring real unity among the numerous German states.

Prussia, the most powerful German state, led the Zollverein (a customs union), which promoted economic integration and strengthened its influence. Nationalist ideas continued to grow, especially after the failed revolutions of 1848.

Under the leadership of Otto von Bismarck, Prussia adopted a policy of Realpolitik and used three wars to achieve unification: the Danish War (1864), Austro-Prussian War (1866), and Franco-Prussian War (1870-71). Following victory over France, the German Empire was proclaimed in 1871 at Versailles, completing unification under Prussian leadership and excluding Austria.
Or
The Great Depression of 1929-mid-1930s severely affected colonial India’s economy and society in the following ways

• Collapse in Trade India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934 as global demand fell sharply.
• Fall in Agricultural Prices Prices of agricultural goods plunged, with wheat prices falling by 50% and raw jute prices by over 60%, hitting farmers hard.
• Peasant Distress Revenue demands remained unchanged, forcing peasants into debt, mortgaging land, and selling jewellery or precious metals.
• Gold Exports India became a major exporter of gold, which aided Britain’s recovery but offered little relief to Indian peasants.
• Urban Impact While rural areas suffered, some urban dwellers with fixed incomes benefited from falling prices, and certain industries grew due to tariff protection.

Question 8.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.

Fear of the book
Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer, who criticised the excesses of Catholicism but kept his distance from Luther, expressed a deep anxiety about printing. He wrote in Adages (1508): ‘To what corner of the world do they not fly, these swarms of new books? It may be that one here and there contributes something worth knowing, but the very multitude of them is hurtful to scholarship, because it creates a glut, and even in good things satiety is most harmful … [printers] fill the world with books, not just trifling things (such as I write, perhaps), but stupid, ignorant, slanderous, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious books, and the number of them is such that even the valuable publications lose their value.
(i) How did Erasmus express concern about printing in the source? (1)
(ii) How did the Roman Catholic Church respond to the challenges posed by popular readings? (1)
(iii) What impact did printing have on religious interpretations among the working class? (2)
Answer:
(i) Erasmus expressed his concern about printing by criticising the abundance of books as harmful, especially those spreading rebellious and irreligious ideas.

(ii) The Roman Catholic Church imposed strict controls on publishers and maintained an Index of Prohibited Books in response to the challenges posed by popular readings.

(iii) The impact printing has on religious interpretations among the working class were

• Access to Religious Texts Printing made the Bible and other religious books available in local languages, making them accessible to the common people.
• Independent Understanding The working class could now read and interpret religious texts themselves, reducing dependence on priests.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2)
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.
B. The place where the peasant Satyagraha took place in 1918.

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
Which of the following is essential to ensure the long-term use of mineral resources? (1)
(a) Intensive extraction of minerals for economic gain
(b) Use of outdated mining methods to minimise costs
(c) Judicious and planned utilisation of mineral resources
(d) Focusing only on coal and iron extraction
Answer:
(c) Judicious and planned utilisation of mineral resources

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes (1)

Types of Resources	?	?
Biotic	Obtained from non-living things	Obtained from both national and international territory
Examples: Forests, animals, fisheries	Examples: minerals, metals, water	Examples: resources found in oceans beyond EEZ

(a) Abiotic resources, International resources
(b) Renewable resources, National resources
(c) Abiotic resources, Community-owned resources
(d) Potential resources, Developed resources
Answer:
(a) Abiotic resources, International resources

Question 12.
According to recent reports, water availability per person in India has drastically declined due to overuse and pollution. Which of the following is the most significant indirect impact of this trend? (1)
(a) Expansion of tourism in hill areas
(b) Increased demand for packaged water
(c) Decline in agricultural productivity and rural livelihoods
(d) Rise in hydroelectric production
Answer:
(c) Decline in agricultural productivity and rural livelihoods

Question 13.
Which of the following statements best applies to the classification of industries based on raw materials? (1)
(a) Sugar, jute, and cotton are all mineral-based industries
(b) The iron and steel industry is an agro-based industry
(c) Aluminium and cement industries are mineral-based
(d) Woollen and silk industries are mineral-based
Answer:
(c) Aluminium and cement industries are mineral-based

Question 14.
Based on the distribution of mineral resources in India,which of the following statements would most likely apply to MadhyaPradesh? (1)
(a) It is the leading producer of manganese in the country,
(b) It produces manganese only for local industrial use.
(c) It has no significant manganese reserves.
(d) Manganese mining is entirely managed by private companies.
Answer:
(a) It is the leading producer of manganese in the country.

Question 15.
Which of the following statements best describes the aim of the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)? (1)
(a) To develop ports for international trade
(b) To create express highways connecting four metros
(c) To connect every village with all-weather roads
(d) To build bullet train routes between major cities
Answer:
(c) To connect every village with all-weather roads

Question 16.
Why is the wheat crop mainly grown in the Northern plains of India? Give two reasons. (2)
Answer:
Wheat crop is mainly grown in the northern plains of India due to the following reasons

• The region has fertile alluvial soil and level land, suitable for wheat cultivation.
• It receives moderate winter rainfall and has irrigation facilities, ideal for the rabi season.

Question 17.
A person plans to establish a copper smelting plant. He is advised to set it up in Rajasthan or JharkhandAnalyse the geographical and economic reasons behind this advice. (5)
Or
“India’s mineral resources are unevenly distributed.” Justify the statement with examples and its implications for economic development.
Answer:
The geographical and economic reasons behind this advice are as follows

• Rajasthan’s Khetri mines and Jharkhand’s Singhbhum district have abundant copper ore reserves, ensuring a steady raw material supply.
• Proximity to mining areas significantly reduces transportation costs for raw materials.
• Both states have an established network of skilled labour and necessary infrastructure for mineral processing.
• Well-developed road and rail connectivity enables efficient movement of raw materials and finished goods to markets.
• Supportive industrial policies in both states provide incentives and facilities for setting up mineral-based industries.

Or
India’s mineral resources are unevenly distributed, for example

• Peninsular India, especially states like Odisha and Chhattisgarh, is rich in coal, iron ore, and bauxite, while the Northern plains have negligible mineral resources.
• Petroleum reserves are concentrated in specific regions such as Assam, Gujarat, and offshore fields like Bombay High.
• Uneven distribution of minerals results in regional imbalances in industrial growth, with mineral-rich areas attracting more mining and related industries.
• Many resource-rich states like Jharkhand remain economically backwards due to poor infrastructure, low investment, and socio-economic challenges.
• Effective national planning, improved transport links, and equitable investment are essential to use these resources efficiently and ensure balanced regional development across the country.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire Northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the Eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear some what bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.

Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age, alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The Bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar soil. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the Bangar.
(i) Why does alluvial soil require the least water? (1)
(ii) What is the reason behind the high fertility of alluvial soil? (1)
(iii) In India, where can one find alluvial soil? Which Indian state has the largest deposits of alluvial soil? (2)
Answer:
(i) Alluvial soil requires the least water due to its high porosity.

(ii) The reason behind the high fertility of alluvial soil is its richness in potash, phosphoric acid and lime. These nutrients make it ideal for cultivating crops like rice, wheat and sugarcane.

(iii) Alluvial soil is found in the regions of Indo-Gangetic plains, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam, as well as in the Northern parts of Gujarat. Uttar Pradesh has the highest deposits of alluvial soil in India.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols (1)
I. (a) The dam on the Krishna river, located in Andhra Pradesh, is known for irrigation and hydel power.
Or
(b) The dam on the Tungabhadra river is located in Karnataka.

II. Any two of the following (2)
(i) A major seaport in Gujarat
(ii) An international airport in Amritsar
(iii) An international airport in Mumbai
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statements are true with respect to accommodation in Belgium? (1)
I. Some special laws require the support of a majority from each linguistic group in the central parliament.
II. Many powers of the Central Government were given to regional governments, which are not subordinate to the Centre.
III. Brussels has a separate government with equal representation of both communities.
IV. A ‘community government’ elected by people governs cultural, educational and language matters.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 21.
The following image shows new laws that were made in Russia in 2005, giving powers to its President. During the same time, the US President visited Russia. Study the given picture and answer the following question. (1)

Which among the following statements appropriately describes the given picture?
(a) Democracy can help in the division of powers.
(b) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(c) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
(d) Concentration of powers in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
Answer:
(d) Concentration of powers in one hand helps to make quick decisions.

Question 22.
Suppose the Government of India decides to regulate computer software, a subject that was not listed when the Constitution was made. A State Government opposes the policy. Can the State Government stop the Union from implementing it? (1)
(a) Yes, because it lies in the State List.
(b) No, because it is a ‘residuary’ subject on which only the Union can legislate.
(c) Yes, because both levels must approve such changes.
(d) No, because local bodies must approve first.
Answer:
(b) No, because it is a ‘residuary’ subject on which only the Union can legislate.

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. (1)
Assertion (A) Power sharing is desirable in a democracy because it reduces the possibility of conflict. Reason (R) Arrangements ensure that no single community can make decisions unilaterally. Codes
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 24.
State any two roles of opposition parties in a democracy. (2)
Answer:
Two roles of opposition parties in a democracy are as follows

• Opposition parties voice alternative views, criticise government failures, and hold those in power accountable.
• They mobilise public opinion, highlight issues, and offer policy alternatives. By scrutinising bills and decisions inside legislatures and outside, they provide a democratic check on ruling parties.

Question 25.
Explain how horizontal power-sharing works. (2)
Answer:
Horizontal power sharing works in the following ways

• Horizontal power-sharing divides authority among the legislature, executive and judiciary so that no organ can exercise unlimited power.
• Each organ has constitutionally defined jurisdiction and can check the others through review, oversight and accountability mechanisms, creating checks and balances.

Question 26.
“Caste can no longer be a factor that determines voting behaviour in India.” Support this statement with suitable arguments. (3)
Answer:
Caste can no longer be a factor that determines voting behaviour in India, for example

• Economic development, urbanisation, and higher levels of education have broadened people’s outlook, making them consider issues beyond caste.
• Political parties now seek wider social coalitions, focusing on development, governance, and employment promises to attract diverse groups.
• Caste identities still exist, but they are often combined with other concerns like economic status and performance of candidates.

Question 27.
“Democratic governments are accountable and transparent.” Support the statement with arguments. (5)
Or “The challenge of money and muscle power is one of the major obstacles in the way of fair democratic politics in India.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
Democratic governments are accountable and transparent due to following reasons

• Regular, free and fair elections allow citizens to choose and remove rulers, aligning policies with public expectations.
• Open public debate in legislatures and the media subjects laws and decisions to scrutiny before adoption.
• Rules of decision-making and record-keeping make actions reviewable by courts and citizens, ensuring decisions follow due process.
• Access to information enables people to examine files, obtain reasons, and challenge wrongdoing.
• Constitutional checks and balances, including judicial review, an active opposition, and audit/ombudsman mechanisms, deter arbitrary action and compel governments to explain and justify choices.

Or
The challenge of money and muscle power is one of the major obstacle in the way of fair democratics politics in the following ways

• Money power in elections leads to unfair advantages for wealthy candidates and parties, making it difficult for honest and less affluent individuals to compete.
• Huge election expenses create dependency on large donors, influencing policy decisions in their favour.
• Muscle power, in the form of criminal influence, intimidation, and violence, undermines the free will of voters and discourages political participation.
• It erodes trust in the electoral process and can lead to corrupt and inefficient governance.
• Both challenges distort the level playing field necessary for democracy, weaken the link between public opinion and policy-making, and reduce citizens’ faith in democratic institutions. Tackling them is essential to ensure free, fair, and transparent elections in India.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
What is most distinctive about democracy is that its examination never ends. As democracy passes one test, it produces another test. As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better. That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy: it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.

A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.
(i) What is the significance of the ongoing examination of democracy, according to the source? (1)
(ii) How does the fact that people are complaining about democracy serve as evidence of its success? (1)
(iii) According to the source, what transformation occurs when people express dissatisfaction with democracy? (1)
Answer:
(i) The ongoing examination of democracy reflects democracy’s adaptability and the continuous pursuit of enhancement and reform in governance processes to meet the evolving needs of society.

(ii) The fact that people are complaining about democracy serves as evidence of its success because it shows their active participation in the country’s governance.

(iii) When people express dissatisfaction with democracy, it leads to public debates, discussions and movements. This pressure forces the government to improve policies and correct mistakes, thus making democracy more responsive and accountable to the needs of its citizens.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
Disguised unemployment in rural areas occurs when
(a) More workers are employed than actually required
(b) Fewer workers are employed than actually required
(c) Workers are paid less than the minimum wage
(d) Workers migrate to cities in search of jobs
Answer:
(a) More workers are employed than actually required

Question 30.
What can be inferred about the limitations of using only literacy rate as an indicator of development? (1)
(a) It shows the number of schools available in a country.
(b) It gives information about education levels but not about employment or quality of life.
(c) It measures income distribution in a country.
(d) It is the only factor required to determine the development status of a country.
Answer:
(b) It gives information about education levels but not about employment or quality of life.

Question 31.
Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the primary sector supports the secondary sector? (1)
(a) A factory produces furniture without using any raw materials.
(b) Farmers grow cotton which is then used by textile mills to produce cloth.
(c) A bakery bakes bread without purchasing wheat or flour from farmers.
(d) A call centre provides customer support without any link to agricultural or industrial products.
Answer:
(b) Farmers grow cotton which is then used by textile mills to produce cloth.

Question 32.
Which of the following is a modern form of money in India? (1)
(a) Gold jewellery
(b) Demand deposits in banks
(c) Commodity money like grain
(d) Cowry shells
Answer:
(b) Demand deposits in banks

Question 33.
Ravi explains how the absence of formal credit forces poor households to borrow from moneylenders. Which of the following justifications is most likely to be given by him? (1)
(a) Informal loans are always cheaper and easier to repay.
(b) Moneylenders often charge very high interest rates, trapping borrowers in debt.
(c) Formal credit is available instantly without documentation.
(d) Borrowing from moneylenders increases household savings.
Answer:
(b) Moneylenders often charge very high interest rates, trapping borrowers in debt.

Question 34.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:
(a) 2 3 1

Question 35.
Explain how life expectancy can be considered a key indicator of development. (3)
Answer:
Life expectancy is a key indicator of development because it reflects the overall health, nutrition, sanitation, and medical facilities in a country. Higher life expectancy shows better living conditions and quality of life, indicating effective healthcare systems and socio-economic progress, while lower life expectancy often points to poverty, poor healthcare, and underdevelopment.

Question 36.
“Employment in the unorganised sector needs greater protection from the government.” Justify this statement. (3)
Answer:
Employment in the unorganised sector needs greater protection from the government in the following ways

• Lack of Job Security Workers can be removed without prior notice, leaving them without income or support.
• Poor Working Conditions Low wages, long working hours, and unsafe environments are common, affecting workers’ health and productivity.
• No Social Benefits There is no provision for health insurance, paid leave, pension, or retirement benefits, making workers vulnerable during illness or old age.

Question 37.
State any three ways in which public investment in infrastructure can boost economic development. (3)
Answer:
Public investment in infrastructure can boost economic development in the following ways

• Improved Connectivity Better roads, railways, and ports reduce transport costs and increase trade efficiency.
• Enhanced Productivity Reliable power supply, irrigation, and communication systems help industries and agriculture produce more.
• Employment Generation Infrastructure projects create jobs, increasing incomes and boosting demand in the economy.

Question 38.
A student interviewed two factory owners – one producing sports shoes for a multinational brand and another running a small local shoe unit. After the discussion, the student concluded that the first was linked to the globalised economy, while the second operated only in the local market.
Analyse the key differences between these two production setups that must have enabled the student to reach this conclusion. (5)
Or
Globalisation has affected producers in India in both positive and negative ways. Support the statement with arguments.
Answer:
The key differences between these two production setups that must have enabled the student to reach this conclusion are as follows

Aspect	MNC-linked Shoe Factory	Local Shoe Unit
Technology	Uses advanced machinery and modem production methods	Limited or traditional production technology
Capital Source	Supported by foreign investment	Relies on local investment or personal savings
Order Size	Large bulk orders from global brands	Small-scale orders for local customers
Quality Standards	Follows global quality and design standards	Meets local standards, limited product variety
Profit Potential	Higher profits due to scale and global demand	Lower profits, faces competition from imports/MNCs

Or
Globalisation has affected producers in India in the following ways
Positive effects of globalisation are as follows

• Globalisation has given many producers in India access to larger international markets, enabling them to expand their customer base and increase sales.
• It has brought in modern technology, better production methods, and foreign investment, which have improved quality and efficiency.
• Many industries, such as IT, automobiles, garments, and electronics, have created new job opportunities.
  Negative effects of globalisation are as follows
• Many cannot afford expensive technology, making it hard to compete on quality and price. In some cases, jobs created are temporary, with low wages and poor working conditions.
• Thus, while globalisation has opened new opportunities, it has also posed serious challenges for many Indian producers.

 

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