CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 10 with Solutions - #NCSOLVE 📚

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 10 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

• Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
• Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
• Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
  Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

Section-A [20 x 1=20]
(This section comprises of multiple choice questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each)

Question 1.
Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866? (1)
(a) Sardinia-Piedmont
(b) Venetia
(c) Sicily
(d) Papal State
Answer:
(b) Venetia

Question 2.
Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option. (1)
I. Poverty and hunger
II. Slaves for sale
III. Wide spread of diseases
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution
Options
(a) Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Answer:
(c) only I, III and IV are correct

Question 3.
The author of ‘Book of Marvels’ is (1)
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Columbus
(c) Vasco da Gama
(d) Alfred Crosby
Answer:
(a) Marco polo

Question 4.
Assume you are doing research on 15th-century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research? (1)
(a) Easier access to rare manuscripts
(b) Reduced need for libraries
(c) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
(d) Increased speed and accuracy of print
Answer:
(d) increased speed and accuracy of print

Question 5.
Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option. (1)
I. Reserved
II. Protected
III. Unclassed
Options
(a) III, II, I
(b) I, II, III
(c) II, III, I
(d) III, I, II
Answer:
(a) III, II, I

Question 6.
‘Sariska Tiger Reserve’ is located in which one of the following states? (1)
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

Question 7.
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option (1)

Answer:
(c) 4 1 2 3

Question 8.
Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna-Godavari issue. (1)
(a) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey? (1)
(a) Paddy
(b) Maize
(c) Wheat
(d) Jowar
Answer:
(c) Wheat

Question 10.
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. (1)
Assertion (A) Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R) All living things need minerals.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 11.
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. (1)

Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 12.
Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government? (1)
(a) Unitary
(b) Presidential
(c) Federal
(d) Parliamentary
Answer:
(c) Federal

Question 13.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following. (1)
(Country) – (System)
(a) Canada – Unitary
(b) Bolivia – Federal
(c) Australia – Unitary
(d) Spain – Federal
Answer:
(d) Spain-Federal

Question 14.
Which of the following are the main components of a political party? (1)
Choose the correct option
I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups
Options
(a) Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Answer:
(a) Only I, II and III are correct

Question 15.
Study the following table related to ‘World Human Development Index’ and answer the questions given below. (1)

S.No	Country	HDI Rank in the world
1. 2. 3. 4.	India Myanmar Nepal Pakistan	130 148 149 150

Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in ‘Human Development Index’?
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(b) India

Question 16.
‘ X ‘ lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of ‘ X ‘ will fall under which sector of the economy? (1)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 17.
Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow (1)

The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy?
(a) Primary
(b) Quaternary
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary
Answer:
(c) Secondary

Question 18.
Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option. (1)
I. Lack of collateral
II. Complicated procedure
III. Higher cost of borrowing
IV. Lack of awareness
Options
(a) Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Answer:
(c) Only I, II and IV are correct

Question 19.
Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs? (1)
(a) Poor households
(b) Households with few assets
(c) Both poor households and households with few assets
(d) Both well-off households and households with few assets
Answer:
(c) Both poor households and households with few assets

Question 20.
Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option. (1)
Statement I Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
Statement II This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
Options
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Section-B [4 x 2=8]
(This section comprises of 4 short answer (VSA) type questions of 2 marks each)

Question 21.
Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of modern nationalism in India.
Or
Why Gandhiji say ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force? Explain by giving two arguments.
Answer:
The growth of nationalism in the colonies is closely linked to the anti-colonial movement because in places like India, people united in their struggle against colonial rule. The shared experience of being oppressed by colonial powers created a sense of unity across different groups. However, each group experienced colonialism in different ways and had different ideas of freedom. Leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress worked to bring these groups together in a single movement, but this unity was not achieved easily and involved conflicts.
Or
Gandhiji referred to ‘Satyagraha’ as ‘pure soul force’ because

• It is a non-violent way of resisting injustice, relying on truth and inner strength.
• It emphasises that the power to resist comes from one’s spirit and conviction, rather than physical force.

Question 22.
Explain any two problems of the global indiscriminate use of resources.
Answer:
Human beings have used resources indiscriminately, leading to the following major problems

• Excessive use of resources have depleted their stock throughout the world.
• Exploitation of resources has led to the global ecological crisis e.g. global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

Question 23.
Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality.
Answer:
Two measures to remove gender inequality are
(i) Strengthening laws and increasing public awareness to prevent sex-selective abortions.
(ii) Ensuring timely justice for victims and expand support services to empower women.

Question 24.
How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1960s promote globalisation? Explain.
Answer:
In the 1990 s, Indian opened up its economy by removing trade barriers, allowing foreign companies to invest and set up businesses. This led to more imports, exports and foreign investment. Advances in technology made global communication faster, helping India connect more with the world economy.

Section-C [5 x 3=15 ]
(This section comprises of 5 long answer (SA) type questions of 3 marks each)

Question 25.
“Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of ‘Swaraj’ in yet. another way.” Explain the statement in the context of Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer:
The tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of Swaraj in different manner and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement differently. For example, in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s. It is not a form of struggle that the Congress could approve. They were against the colonial rule and policies because it affected their livelihood as well as their traditional rights were also denied.

The leader of the guerilla movement, Alluri Sitaram Raju talked about the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi and said he was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and Swaraj. He persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. But at the same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence. The Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving Swaraj.

Question 26.
Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows
Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining of the soil and her family’s search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.
What type of farming is Rinjha’s family doing describe any tow of its characteristics.
Answer:
Rinjha’s family is performing shifting cultivation. Two of its characteristics are

• Temporary Cultivation of Land In shifting cultivation, a piece of land is cleared, cultivated for a few years, and then abandoned once the soil fertility decreases. The land is left to regenerate naturally through fallow periods before it is used again.
• Use of Traditional Farming Techniques The farming techniques in shifting cultivation often involve simple tools and methods. The focus is on subsistence farming, and the system relies on the natural regeneration of the land.

Question 27.
“That democratic system of government is considered good in which maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political power.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
Suitable arguments for the above statement are as follows

• Ensures Representation When more citizens are stakeholders, diverse interests are represented, making policies more inclusive and reflective of society’s needs.
• Promoting Accountability Shared political power ensures that leaders are accountable to the people, reducing corruption and abuse of power.
• Increased Legitimacy Broad participation in decision-making boosts the legitimacy of the government, making it more accepted and fair to the public.

Question 28.
Explain the importance of political parties in democracy.
Or
Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments.
Answer:
Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties. They are necessary due to the following reasons

• As societies became large and complex, they need some agency to gather different views on various issues and present these to the government.
• Every candidate in the elections will be independent. No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
• Society needs a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs of every representative government.

Or
India adopted multi-party system for the following reasons

• India being a vast and diverse country, the multi-party system was needed to accommodate the vast population.
• The social and geographical diversity of India could not be represented by two or three parties.
• Multi-party system ensures a healthy competition between different parties and prevents dictatorship of a single party. Indian Constitution declares India as a democratic country. Multi-party system fulfils this criteria and provides chance for proper growth of the nation.

Question 29.
Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian economy with example.
Answer:
Differences between public sector and private sector are

Public Sector	Private Sector
The main aim of this sector is public welfare.	The main aim of this sector is to earn maximum profit.
It is controlled and managed by tire government.	It is controlled and managed by an individual or a group of individual
This sector provides basic facilities like education, health, food and security to the people, e.g. the Indian Railways, the Post Office.	This sector provides consumer goods to the people, e.g. the Reliance, Industries Limited (RIL), TISCO.

Section-D [4 x 5=20]
(This section comprises of 4 long answer (LA) type questions of 5 marks each)

Question 30.
Analyse the significance of the ‘Napoleonic Code’ in making the administrative system rational and efficient. (5)
Or
How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early decades of the 19th century? Analyse.
Answer:
The ‘Napoleonic code’ made the administrative system rational and efficient in the following ways

• Abolition of Privileges The Napoleonic Code abolished privileges based on birth, ensuring equality before the law for all citizens.
• Property Rights It secured property rights, fostering a stable economic environment and encouraging trade and investment.
• Simplification of Administrative Divisions Napoleon simplified administrative structures, reducing complexity and strengthening central authority across regions.
• Abolition of Feudalism He abolished feudal systems, freeing peasants from serfdom and manorial dues, promoting social and economic mobility.
• Standardisation of Laws and Economy Introduced uniform laws, standardized weights and measures, and a common national currency, facilitating trade and economic integration.

Or
The ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism in the following ways

• For the liberal middle classes, the ideas of national unity means the abolition of aristocratic privileges. Liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.
• Liberalism emphasised the concept of government. It urged for a Constitution and representative government through Parliament. National unity can be maintained by the proper governance of the Parliament.
• In the economic sphere, liberalism is in favour of the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century, this was a strong demand of the middle class which was in favour of national unity.
• The expansion of raiways facilitated the movement of goods and people across regions. This infrastructure development fostered a sense of unity and shared economic interests, which aligned with liberal good.
• Liberals emphasised the concept of government by consent, advocating for representative institutions and constitutional government.

Question 31.
“Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country”. Justify the statement. (5)
Or
“Agriculture and industries complement each other”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of a country because

• Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture which forms an important part of our economy.
• Manufacturing also reduces the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• Industrial development helps in removal of unemployment and poverty as it creates jobs and more income. It also aims at reducing regional differences by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
• Export of manufactured goods increases trade and commerce, and brings foreign exchange.
• Countries that transform their raw material into a wide variety of value finished goods of higher value, are prosperous. Thus, India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries.

Or
Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand.
The role of industries in the development of agriculture can be seen through the following points
(i) The agro-based industries have given a major boost to agriculture by raising productivity of those crops which are used as raw material in industries.

(ii) The agro-based industries provide industrial products such as fertilisers, insecticides, irrigation pumps, PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc to the farmers to increase agriculture productivity.

(iii) The industrial sector provides employment to the excess labour (labours who are actually disguised unemployed) in the agriculture sector.

(iv) The growth of industries necessitates the development of infrastructure such as roads and transportation, which in turn facilitates the efficient movement of agricultural produce. Thus, development of manufacturing industry has not only helped agriculturists in increasing their production but also made production process very efficient.

Question 32.
Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy.
Or
Explain any five values of democracy.
Answer:
Assessing democracy’s outcomes involves evaluating whether it fulfills the expectations associated with democratic governance. This assessment can be done through following criteria

• Promotion of Equality Evaluate the extent to which democracy promotes equality among citizens, both in terms of political rights and socio-economic opportunities. This involves examining indicators such as income distribution, social mobility and access to education and healthcare.
• Enhancement of Individual Dignity Assess whether democracy upholds the dignity of individuals by safeguarding their fundamental rights and freedoms. This includes evaluating the protection of civil liberties, freedom of expression and the rule of law.
• Quality of Decision-making Evaluate the effectiveness and transparency of decision-making processes within democratic institutions. This involves assessing the extent to which decisions are made through open debate, public participation and adherence to democratic norms and principles.
• Conflict Resolution Examine democracy’s ability to peacefully resolve conflicts and manage societal tensions through democratic means, such as dialogue, negotiation and compromise.
• Capacity for Course Correction Assess whether democracy provides mechanisms for accountability and responsiveness to address mistakes and address societal challenges.

Or
The five values of democracy are as follows
Equality Democracy ensures that all citizens, regardless of their caste, creed, religion, or gender, are treated equally before the law. This value of equality is fundamental in ensuring that no one is discriminated against and everyone has the same rights and opportunities in society.

• Freedom In a democracy, individuals are granted freedom of expression, speech. assembly, and association. Citizens have the right to express their opinions, form associations, and participate freely in political processes, without fear of oppression.
• Justice A democratic system strives to provide justice to all its citizens by ensuring that laws are applied fairly, and individuals have access to justice through courts and legal mechanisms. It promotes both social and economic justice by addressing inequalities and upholding human rights.
• Dignity of the Individual Democracy emphasises the dignity of every individual. It protects the rights and freedoms of individuals, ensuring that their personal dignity and autonomy are respected by others and the state. This includes the right to live without fear or discrimination.
• Majority Rule with Minority Rights While democracy is based on the rule of the majority, it also protects the rights of minorities. It ensures that the majority’s decisions do not infringe on the basic rights of minority groups, thus maintaining a balance between the will of the majority and the protection of minority interests.

Question 33.
“Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country”. Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development(5)
Or
“The development goals of different categories of people may differ”. Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
The overuse of groundwater, as mentioned above, can pose a serious threat to long-term sustamability. The evaluation of the statement is as follows

• Groundwater as a Renewable Resource Groundwater is considered a renewable resource because it is replenished naturally through rainfall and infiltration into the ground. However, like other renewable resources, it can still be overused if consumption exceeds its natural rate of replenishment.
• Overuse and Its Impact The overuse of groundwater, especially in agriculturally rich regions like Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh, can lead to severe depletion of water reserves. This depletion not only affects water availability for future generations but also results in land degradation, reduced agricultural productivity, and the loss of biodiversity.
• Long-term Sustainability Concerns
  Unsustainable water extraction leads to the salinisation of groundwater, lowering of water tables, and reduced access to clean water, which are all major barriers to sustainable development.

Or
Two groups may have different notions of development. For example, In Saurashtra region of Gujarat the local community’s notion of development on the case of construction of a dam was that the areas in which they live will be submerged and there will be greater environnental degradation. However, the government’s notion of development in this case would be that by raising the height of the dam they would be able to provide more water to the people of Saurashtra region of Gujarat, which always suffers from water scarcity. In addition, more electricity would be generated with this measure, which would benefit all the people living in that area.

Section-E [3 x 4=12 ]
(Source Based Questions)

Question 34.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow.
Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.
(i) Explain the meaning of ‘censor’.
(ii) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers?
(iii) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act? Explain any two reasons.
Answer:
(i) Censor means to remove the parts of a book, film, etc. that might offend people or that are considered politically dangerous.

(ii) The colonial administration closely monitored books and newspapers in India because they recognised the power of the press to spread nationalist ideas and mobilise resistance against British rule.

(iii) Gandhiji started a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act because of the following reasons

• Unjust Nature of the Act The Act gave the British government oppressive powers, allowing detention without trial for up to two years, which Gandhi viewed as a violation of civil rights.
• Non-Violent Resistance Gandhi advocated for non-violent civil disobedience and called for a nationwide hartal on 6th April, 1919, to peacefully protest the Act and unite Indians against British rule.

Question 35.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow
An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.
(i) Explain the meaning of ‘participatory democracy’.
(ii) In the context of separation of powers, the given example define which type of government?
(iii) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Participatory democracy refers to a system in which citizens actively participate in decision-making processes, particularly in matters that directly affect them.

(ii) In the context of separation of powers, the given example of Porto Alegre in Brazil represents a participative democracy combined with a decentralised government.

(iii) In India, a system that is most similar to the example of Porto Alegre in Brazil is the structure of local self-government, specifically through Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The Panchayati Raj system and municipalities in India provide a decentralised governance structure where local residents can actively participate in decision-making processes, similar to Porto Alegre’s participatory democracy model.

Question 36.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow
Loans From Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.

Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(i) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit? (1)
(ii) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. (1)
(iii) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers. (2)
Answer:
(i) Cooperative societies come under the category of informal sources of credit.
(ii) Two sources of capital for cooperative societies are member deposits and bank loans.
(iii) Cooperative societies help in increasing farmers’ income by

• Providing Affordable Loans They offer low-interest loans for purchasing agricultural tools, cultivation, and trade, boosting productivity.
• Access to Resources Farmers can pool resources to access funds they may not get individually, improving their economic situation.

Section-F
(Map Based Question)

Question 37.
(a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names or the lines drawn near them. (2)

(i) The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
(ii) The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) Leading state in production of Jute
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport
Answer:
(a) (i) 1920-Nagpur
(ii) (ii) Dandi (Gujarat)
(b)

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