CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions - #NCSOLVE 📚

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D- Economics.
• Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
• Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
• Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

Section A (History)

Question 1.
Match the following. (1)

Answer:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 2.
Which crop from the Americas had a transformative impact on European peasants’ diets in the 18th century? (1)
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Potato
(c) Tobacco
(d) Maize
Answer:
(b) Potato

Question 3.
What was the key contribution of the person shown in the image to European history? (1)

(a) Led the Young Italy Movement
(b) Designed the Treaty of Versailles
(c) Unified Germany through military campaigns
(d) Headed the Frankfurt Parliament
Answer:
(c) Unified Germany through military campaigns

Question 4.
Why did religious authorities in Europe often oppose the spread of print culture? (1)
(a) It made books too expensive
(b) It increased taxes on publishing
(c) It reduced oral traditions
(d) It threatened their control by spreading dissent and new ideas
Answer:
(d) It threatened their control by spreading dissent and new ideas

Question 5.
“Romanticism created a sense of collective identity among different groups in Europe.” Explain with examples. (2)
Or
“Nationalist feelings in the Balkans led to intense conflicts.” Explain with two points.
Answer:
Romanticism fostered collective identity by glorifying folk traditions, language, and history, inspiring unity among diverse groups. For example, Grimm’s Fairy Tales preserved German culture, while Polish national songs kept patriotism alive despite foreign rule. Such cultural revival strengthened nationalist movements across Europe in the 19th century.
Or
Nationalist feelings in the Balkans led to intense conflicts because

• The Balkans had diverse ethnic groups seeking independence from Ottoman rule. Each group wanted to assert its own identity, leading to rivalries.
• External powers like Russia and Austria supported different groups, escalating tensions and contributing to the First World War.

Question 6.
‘The First World War created a new economic and political situation in India.’ Explain how the war became a turning point in the growth of Indian nationalism. (3)
Or
‘Tribal movements during the Non-Cooperation Movement reflected distinct interpretations of Swaraj.’ Justify this statement with reference to any one tribal uprising.
Answer:
The First World War became a turning point in the growth of Indian nationalism in the following ways

• The war led to huge defence expenditure, financed by war loans and increased taxes, causing economic hardship.
• Custom duties were raised and income tax was introduced, burdening the common people.
• Shortages of essential goods and price rises between 1913 and 1918 led to extreme hardship.
• Forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger.
• These developments created widespread dissatisfaction and boosted nationalist sentiments across India.

Or
Tribal movements during the Non-Cooperation Movement reflected their own distinct understanding of Swaraj, shaped by local needs and grievances. A key example is the Gudem Rampa Rebellion (1922-24) in Andhra Pradesh, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju. For the hill tribes, Swaraj was not only political independence from British rule but also the restoration of their traditional rights over forests and land.

The imposition of strict forest laws by the colonial government had restricted their shifting cultivation, grazing, and access to forest produce, severely affecting livelihoods. Raju mobilised the tribes, blending Gandhian ideals with armed resistance, and attacked police stations to assert their freedom. This shows how tribal interpretations of Swaraj merged nationalist aspirations with demands for economic justice and cultural autonomy.

Question 7.
Napoleon introduced several administrative reforms in the regions he conquered, but they were met with mixed reactions from the local population.’ Examine this statement with reference to both the reforms and the responses. (5)
Or
‘Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation in Europe.’ Support this statement with examples of how language, folklore, poetry, and music helped shape nationalist sentiments.
Answer:
Napoleon introduced several administrative reforms in the regions he conquered, and these indeed drew mixed reactions from the local population. For example, His Napoleonic Code abolished feudal privileges, established equality before law, secured property rights, and standardised weights and measures. He modernised transport and removed trade barriers, boosting economic activity.

Many people welcomed these measures as they ended serfdom, reduced feudal dues, and created efficient governance. However, the same reforms came with heavy taxes, compulsory conscription into the French army, and curtailment of political freedoms under his authoritarian rule. In regions like Spain and parts of Italy, such discontent fuelled nationalist uprisings. Therefore, Napoleon’s reforms were seen both as progressive changes and as tools of domination, leading to admiration and resistance alike.

Or
Culture significantly shaped the idea of nationalism in 19th-century Europe. The Romantic movement emphasised emotions and heritage over reason and logic. Poets and artists like Johann Gottfried Herder believed that folk songs, dances, and tales reflected the true spirit (volksgeist) of the nation. In Germany, the Grimm Brothers collected fairy tales to preserve a pure German identity.

In Poland, after Russian occupation, national identity was sustained through language and music-Karol Kurpinski’s operas and folk dances became symbols of resistance. Even when Poland ceased to exist politically, the Polish language in churches kept the national spirit alive. Thus, cultural expressions became powerful tools in uniting people and resisting foreign domination.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
“How were liberty and equality for women to be defined? The liberal politician Carl Welcker, an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament, expressed the following views: ‘Nature has created men and women to carry out different functions … Man, the stronger, the bolder and freer of the two, has been designated as protector of the family, its provider, meant for public tasks in the domain of law, production, defence.

Woman, the weaker, dependent and timid, requires the protection of man. Her sphere is the home, the care of the children, and the nurturing of the family. Do we require any further proof that given such differences, equality between the genders would only endanger harmony and destroy the dignity of the family?’ Louise Otto-Peters (1819-95) was a political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently a feminist political association.
(i) According to an anonymous reader in 1850 , what was considered unjust regarding women’s rights? (1)
(ii) What did Louise Otto-Peters argue about the concept of liberty in her editorial? (1)
(iii) What was the controversy within the liberal movement regarding women’s political rights during the 1848 revolutions? (2)
Answer:
(i) According to an anonymous reader in 1850 , it was considered unjust that women were denied the right to vote despite being subject to the same laws and taxes as men.

(ii) Louise Otto-Peters argued that liberty is indivisible and that those who themselves enjoy freedom should not tolerate the unfreedom of women, advocating for women’s freedom alongside men’s.

(iii) The controversy within the liberal movement regarding women’s political rights during the 1848. revolutions was that while women actively participated in the movement, liberal nationalists did not extend political rights to them. They demanded liberty and equality, but denied women the right to vote, causing discontent among female participants.

Map Based Question

Question 9.
On the outline map of India. Locate and label the following with suitable symbols. (1+1=2)
(A) The place associated with the cotton mill worker’s Satyagraha
(B) The place where the Congress session took place in 1927.

Answer:

Section B (Geography)

Question 10.
What is essential for achieving sustainable development through land use? (1)
(a) Over-cultivation and use of chemical inputs
(b) Intensive farming without crop rotation
(c) Balanced land use planning considering both physical and human factors
(d) Maximum utilisation of land regardless of future needs
Answer:
(c) Balanced land use planning considering both physical and human factors

Question 11.
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes. (1)
Means of Transport

Roadways	?	?
Suitable for short and medium distances; connects rural and urban areas.	Ideal for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances on land.	Cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances overseas.

(a) Railways, Waterways
(b) Airways, Railways
(c) Railways, Pipelines
(d) Waterways, Airways
Answer:
(a) Railways, Waterways

Question 12.
The ‘National Compilation on Dynamic Ground Water Resources of India, 2024’ offers a comprehensive state-wise overview, serving as a foundation for effective policies and management strategies.
According to the latest report, the total annual groundwater recharge is assessed at 446.90 Billion Cubic Meters (BCM), with an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM and an annual extraction of 245.64 BCM.
Over the past decades, groundwater levels have been falling rapidly in urban India due to unregulated extraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term impact of this over-exploitation?
(a) Increased surface water availability
(b) Rise in water table
(c) Reduction in groundwater reserves, affecting future water security
(d) Reduced dependence on borewells
Answer:
(c) Reduction in groundwater reserves, affecting future water security

Question 13.
Based on industrial classification and location, which of the following statements best applies to cities like Bhilai, Durgapur, and Jamshedpur? (1)
(a) These cities are known for light industries and tourism
(b) They are cotton-growing regions and hubs of the handloom sectors
(c) They are centres of heavy industries, especially iron and steel
(d) They have a large number of jute processing mills
Answer:
(c) They are centres of heavy industries, especially iron and steel

Question 14.
Which of the following states has a large percentage of land under permanent forests in India? (1)
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh

Question 15.
Which of the following statements best evaluates the aim of the Jal Jeevan Mission in India? (1)
(a) To build dams for storing flood water
(b) To promote water-intensive farming in arid regions
(c) To provide every rural household with functional tap water connections
(d) To increase hydropower production in remote areas
Answer:
The geographical and economic reasons for choosing this location for export are as follows

• The Bailadila hills in Chhattisgarh have deposits of very high-grade haematite ore.
• The ore has excellent physical properties for steel-making and is exported via the Vishakhapatnam port, which is well-connected by rail.

Question 16.
Iron ore from the Bailadila hills is exported to countries like Japan and South Korea. Explain the geographical and economic reasons for choosing this location for export. (2)
Answer:
The geographical and economic reasons for choosing this location for export are as follows

• The Bailadila hills in Chhattisgarh have deposits of very high-grade haematite ore.
• The ore has excellent physical properties for steel-making and is exported via the Vishakhapatnam port, which is well-connected by rail.

Question 17.
A person is interested in setting up an agro-based industry in Tamil Nadu. He is advised to establish a cotton textile industry in Coimbatore. Analyse the possible reasons behind this suggestion. (5)
Or
“The industrial sector is the backbone of India’s economic development.” Justify the statement by evaluating industries role in India’s growth.
Answer:
The possible reasons behind the advice to set up the cotton textile industry in Coimbatore are as follows

• Coimbatore lies in the cotton-growing belt, ensuring easy availability of raw cotton from nearby regions, reducing transport costs.
• It has a suitable moist climate for textile production, which prevents yarn breakage and helps in producing fine-quality textiles.
• Availability of skilled labour and existing textile infrastructure, such as spinning mills and weaving units, supports efficient production.
• Good connectivity through roads, rail, and nearby ports like Chennai and Kochi allows smooth movement of goods.
• Well-developed market and access to both domestic and international buyers ensure steady demand and profitability for the industry.

Or
The industrial sector is the backbone of India’s economic development due to the following reasons

• Factories employ millions of people in sectors such as textiles, automobiles, engineering goods, and computers, providing both direct and indirect job opportunities, thus reducing unemployment.
• They contribute nearly one-fourth of India’s GDP, playing a significant role in the overall national income and economic stability of the country.
• They produce essential goods like steel for constructing bridges, cement for buildings, and medicines for hospitals, which directly support infrastructure and public health.
• They earn valuable foreign exchange by selling products to other countries – Indian medicines, software, and engineering goods are especially famous in global markets.
• They promote technological development by innovating and manufacturing advanced products like mobile phones, satellites, and renewable energy equipment, strengthening India’s self-reliance.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
As of 2024, India has become the third-largest producer of renewable energy in the world. The government has launched ambitious missions like the National Solar Mission and the Green Hydrogen Mission to reduce its dependence on fossil fuels.
States like Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu are leading in solar and wind energy production, owing to their geographical advantages like high solar insolation and coastal winds.
However, experts warn that unequal energy access, high initial costs, and technological gaps still remain challenges in transitioning fully to clean energy. Despite this, India has pledged to achieve 50% of its electricity generation capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
(i) Identify one geographical reason why Rajasthan and Gujarat have emerged as leaders in renewable energy production. (1)
(ii) “India’s renewable energy sector faces multiple challenges despite rapid growth.” Support this statement with two arguments. (2)
(iii) State one national target that reflects India’s commitment to renewable energy transition. (1)
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan and Gujarat have emerged as leaders in renewable energy production due to high solar insolation in Rajasthan and coastal winds in Gujarat provide ideal natural condition.

(ii) India’s renewable energy sector faces the following challenges despite rapid growth

• Unequal energy access Rural areas still lack infrastructure for clean energy distribution.
• Technological gaps Dependence on foreign technology for advanced systems like green hydrogen.

(iii) One national target that reflects India’s commitment to renewable energy transition is achieving 50% electricity generation capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030.

Map Based Question

Question 19.
On the same outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols.
I. (a) The airport located in Hyderabad, serving as a major hub for both domestic and international flights.
Or
(b) The airport located in Punjab that facilitates regional connectivity and promotes trade and tourism.
II. Any two of the following (2)
(i) A port in Goa
(ii) An iron ore mine located in Odisha
(iii) A coal field in Jharkhand
Answer:

Section C (Political Science)

Question 20.
Which of the following statement(s) are correct about features of the Indian federal system? (1)
I. The Constitution clearly provides a three-tier government structure.
II. The states have no authority to make laws on subjects in the State List.
III. There is an independent judiciary to resolve disputes between governments.
IV. All powers are vested only in the Central Government.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(a) I and III

Question 21.
What is the cartoonist critiquing in this image? (1)

(a) The Republican Party’s environmental policies
(b) Corporate dominance over political institutions
(c) The Democratic Party’s election strategies
(d) Public protests against the government
Answer:
(b) Corporate dominance over political institutions

Question 22.
Consider the following case and choose the correct option.
Suppose the State Government of Maharashtra wants to introduce a new law on police recruitment, but the central government disapproves. What will happen? (1)
(a) State law will prevail as police is a State subject
(b) The Central Government can dismiss the state law
(c) Such subjects come under the Concurrent List, so central law will prevail in conflict
(d) The state has full autonomy to implement the law
Answer:
(c) Such subjects come under the Concurrent List, so central law will prevail in conflict

Question 23.
Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Democracies often take more time in decision-making. (1)
Reason (R) In a democracy, decisions involve consultation and consensus.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and is the correct explanation of A

Question 24.
Mention any two features of a multi-party system in a democracy. (2)
Answer:
Two features of a multi-party system in a democracy are as follows

• More than two parties contest elections and hold power.
• Provides voters with a wider choice of candidates and ideologies.

Question 25.
“Gender inequality persists in various spheres of Indian society.” Highlight any two aspects of life where women face discrimination. (2)
Answer:
Two aspects of life where women face discrimination are as follows

• Education Girls often drop out due to poverty or household responsibilities; female literacy rate is 70% vs 84% for males.
• Workplace Women earn less than men for the same work and face harassment

Question 26.
“Power-sharing is essential in a democracy.” Support this statement with suitable arguments. (3)
Answer:
Power sharing is essential in democracy because

• It helps reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups by giving every section a fair share in decision-making, thus promoting harmony in society.
• Power-sharing ensures political stability by involving all communities and interest groups in governance, which prevents alienation and promotes trust in the system.
• It upholds the true spirit of democracy by decentralising power, ensuring that authority is not concentrated in one place, and allowing citizens to participate meaningfully in governance.

Question 27.
‘There are many challenges faced by political parties in India’. Explain (5)
Or
‘Social divisions affect politics in a democracy’ Analyse this statement with examples.
Answer:
The major challenges faced by political parties are as follows

• Lack of internal democracy and centralised leadership Decision-making is often concentrated in the hands of a few leaders, limiting participation of ordinary members in policy matters.
• Dynastic succession Leadership roles are frequently passed within families, reducing opportunities for grassroots workers to rise to higher positions.
• Money and muscle power Candidate selection and election campaigns are heavily influenced by financial resources and sometimes criminal backgrounds, affecting fairness.
• Absence of meaningful choice Many parties have similar ideologies and promises, making it hard for voters to distinguish between alternatives.
• Need for electoral and organisational reforms Transparent funding, fair candidate selection, and stronger party structures are necessary to strengthen democracy and improve accountability.

Or
Social divisions affect politics in a democracy in the following ways

• In a democracy, political parties often frame their policies and campaigns to appeal to particular social groups based on caste, religion, language or region.
• Politics here was historically divided between the Protestant majority, supporting union with the UK, and the Catholic minority, favouring unification with Ireland.
• Parties like the BSP have mobilised support by focusing on Dalit rights and representation, showing how social identity shapes political agendas.
• While social divisions can ensure representation of marginalised communities, they can also lead to polarisation if used irresponsibly by political actors.
• Impact on election outcomes Voting patterns often reflect social identities, influencing which parties or candidates win and shaping the overall direction of governance.

Question 28.
Read the given source and answer the questions.

If you wanted to measure democracies on the basis of this expected outcome, you would look for the following practices and institutions: regular, free and fair elections; open public debate on major policies and legislations; and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functioning. The actual performance of democracies shows a mixed record on this. Democracies have had greater success in setting up regular and free elections and in setting up conditions for open public debate.
But most democracies fall short of elections that provide a fair chance to everyone and in subjecting every decision to public debate. Democratic governments do not have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens. All one can say in favour of democratic regimes is that they are much better than any non-democratic regime in these respects.
(i) State the expected outcomes of a democratic government. (1)
(ii) State the reason why some people consider democracy less efficient than other forms of government. (1)
(iii) Explain any two ways in which democracy ensures transparency and accountability in governance. (2)
Answer:
(i) One expected outcome of a democratic government is that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to their needs and expectations, ensuring people’s participation in decision-making.

(ii) Some people consider democracy less efficient because decision-making involves deliberation, negotiation, and following procedures, which takes more time compared to quick decisions in non-democratic systems.

(iii) Democracy ensures transparency and accountability in the following ways

• Right to information Citizens can examine the decision-making process to check if correct procedures were followed.
• Regular, free and fair elections These allow people to choose their rulers and hold them accountable for their performance.

Section D (Economics)

Question 29.
GDP is calculated by (1)
(a) Adding up the value of all intermediate goods and services
(b) Adding the value of all goods and services produced by government employees
(c) Adding the value of all final goods and services produced in a year
(d) Subtracting imports from exports only
Answer:
(c) Adding the value of all final goods and services produced in a year

Question 30.
What can be inferred about the limitations of using only money income to compare people’s development? (1)
(a) It reflects income differences but hides non-material aspects like dignity and equality
(b) Money income covers all aspects of people’s needs, including security and freedom
(c) It is the most perfect way of assessing people’s happiness and job satisfaction
(d) It accurately represents the cultural and emotional well-being of individuals
Answer:
(a) It reflects income differences but hides non-material aspects like dignity and equality

Question 31.
Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the primary sector supports the secondary sector? (1)
(a) A school buys new books from a publishing house
(b) A textile factory uses raw cotton purchased from farmers to produce fabric
(c) A lawyer provides advice to a businessman for setting up a firm
(d) A delivery company transports online shopping parcels
Answer:
(b) A textile factory uses raw cotton purchased from farmers to produce fabric

Question 32.
Which institution compiles and publishes the Human Development Index (HDI) rankings of countries? (1)
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(c) United Nations Development Programme

Question 33.
Rita tries to explain how demand deposits are considered money. Which of the following justifications will best support her explanation? (1)
(a) They can be withdrawn anytime and used for payment like cash
(b) They are not part of the money system as they are not in paper form
(c) They are safe but not accepted by banks for transactions
(d) They are useful only if one has a cheque book
Answer:
(a) They can be withdrawn anytime and used for payment like cash

Question 34.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) 1 2 3 4

Question 35.
Assess the impact of unequal distribution of resources on the development prospects of a country. (3)
Answer:
The impact of unequal distribution of resources on the development prospects of a country can be assessed in the following ways

• Regional imbalances in growth Areas with abundant resources develop faster, while resourcepoor regions lag behind, creating economic disparities.
• Unequal access to opportunities Concentration of resources in certain areas limits education, healthcare, and employment opportunities for other regions, slowing overall progress.
• Social and economic inequality Disparities in income and living standards increase tensions between different sections of society.

Question 36.
‘Promotion of sustainable development is essential for safeguarding both economic growth and environmental balance.’ Justify the statement with relevant arguments. (3)
Answer:
Promotion of sustainable development is essential for safeguarding both economic growth and environmental balance in the following ways

• Conservation of resources Sustainable development ensures that natural resources like water, forests, and minerals are used wisely so they remain available for future generations.
• Long-term economic growth By avoiding overexploitation, industries can maintain steady production without facing resource shortages.
• Environmental protection It reduces pollution, controls deforestation, and safeguards biodiversity, maintaining the ecological balance necessary for life.

Question 37.
Identify and explain three reasons why the public sector plays a crucial role in economic development. (3)
Answer:
The public sector plays a crucial role in economic development for the following reasons

• Development of infrastructure The public sector invests in essential facilities like roads, railways, power supply, and irrigation projects, which form the backbone of industrial and agricultural growth.
• Promotion of social welfare It provides basic services such as education, healthcare, and sanitation at affordable or no cost, improving living standards and reducing inequality.
• Balanced regional growth The public sector sets up industries and projects in backwards areas, creating jobs and reducing regional disparities, thus promoting inclusive development across the country.

Question 38.
A research student interviewed two workers, Ramesh (a bank employee) and Suresh (a street vendor), about their jobs. Based on their responses, the student concluded Ramesh works in the organised sector while Suresh is in the unorganised sector.” Analyse the key differences between these sectors that helped the student reach this conclusion. (5)
Or
‘While foreign trade promotes integration of markets and greater choices for consumers, it may also widen inequalities among producers.’ Support this statement with suitable arguments.
Answer:
The key differences between the sectors that helped the student reach this conclusion are as follows

Difference	Ramesh (Organised Sector)	Suresh (Unorganised Sector)
Job Security	Permanent job with an appointment letter	No job security; works daily as per demand
Working Conditions	Works in the AC office with fixed timings	Works on the roadside with no fixed hours
Benefits	Gets PF, medical leave, and pension	No social security or health benefits
Wages	Fixed salary with annual increments	Irregular income (depends on daily sales)
Government Rules	The bank follows all labour laws and regulations	No formal rules or worker protections

Or
The given statement can be supported through the following arguments

• Integration of markets Foreign trade connects producers and consumers across countries, enabling goods and services to move freely and expanding market reach.
• Greater consumer choice Consumers get access to a wider variety of goods, often at competitive prices, improving their purchasing options.
• Benefit to large producers Big companies with modern technology and resources can compete globally and increase profits.
• Disadvantage to small producers Small-scale producers may struggle to match the quality, price, or scale of imported goods, losing their market share.
• Resulting inequality This creates a gap where large producers thrive, while small producers face losses or closure.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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