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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions - #NCSOLVE 📚

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Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hrs.
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them.

  1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper contains three sections
    • Section A Reading Skills
    • Section B Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
    • Section C Literature Textbook.
  3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully.
1. Maintaining eye health is essential for overall well-being and quality of life. Our eyes are incredibly complex organs and taking proactive steps to care for them can help prevent vision problems and preserve optimal eyesight as we age. Regular eye examinations are fundamental to maintaining eye health. Comprehensive eye exams can detect early signs of common eye conditions such as cataracts, glaucoma and macular degeneration. For individuals with existing vision problems, such as nearsightedness or astigmatism, routine check-ups ensure that corrective lenses or other treatments are up-to-date and effective.

2. In addition to regular exams, adopting healthy lifestyle habits can promote long-term eye health. Eating a balanced diet rich in fruits, vegetables and omega-3 fatty acids supports the nutritional needs of our eyes. Foods like carrots, spinach and fish contain vitamins and antioxidants that protect against age-related eye diseases and promote optimal retinal function.

3. Protecting our eyes from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation is crucial for preventing conditions such as cataracts and macular degeneration. Wearing sunglasses with UV protection when outdoors, especially during peak sunlight hours, shields our eyes from damaging UV rays. Similarly, wearing protective eyewear during activities that pose a risk of eye injury, such as sports or DIY projects, helps prevent accidents and trauma.

4. Another key aspect of maintaining eye health is practising good digital hygiene. Prolonged exposure to digital screens, whether from computers, smartphones or tablets can cause digital eye strain and fatigue. To alleviate symptoms, it’s essential to take regular breaks, adjust screen settings to reduce glare and practise the 20-20-20 rule: every 20 minutes, look at something 20 feet away for at least 20 seconds.

5. Finally, avoiding harmful habits like smoking and excessive alcohol consumption is critical for preserving eye health. Smoking increases the risk of developing age-related macular degeneration and cataracts, while excessive alcohol consumption can lead to optic nerve damage and vision impairment.

6. In conclusion, maintaining eye health requires a multifaceted approach that encompasses regular check-ups, healthy lifestyle habits and protective measures against environmental and digital stressors. By prioritising eye care and adopting proactive strategies, we can safeguard our vision and enjoy a lifetime of clear, comfortable sight.

Answer the following questions based on the above passage.
(i) Why is eye health considered essential for overall well-being and quality of life? (Paragraph 1) (1)
Answer:
Eye health is considered essential for overall well-being and quality of life because healthy eyes are essential for detecting problems early and preserving clear vision as we age, contributing to a better quality of life.

(ii) Which of the following, as per paragraph 2, does not contribute to maintaining healthy eyes? (1)
(a) Regular intake of carrots and spinach
(b) Eating foods rich in omega-3 fatty acids
(c) Using vitamin supplements even when unnecessary
(d) Adding antioxidant-rich items to your meals
Answer:
(c) using vitamin supplements even when necessary

(iii) Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the brackets. (1)
Wearing sunglasses with UV protection helps prevent (nutrient loss / macular degeneration). (Paragraph 3)
Answer:
macular degeneration

(iv) Select the option that is True from (A)-(C) for what the ’20-20-20 rule’ suggests in paragraph 4. (1)
(A) Blink 20 times to moisten your eyes.
(B) Every 20 minutes, look 20 feet away for 20 seconds to reduce eye strain.
(C) Limit screen time to 20 minutes daily.
Answer:
(b) Every 20 minutes, look 20 feet away for 20 seconds to reduce eye strain.

(v) Complete the analogy by selecting one of the two correct options (a), (b) (Paragraph 5). (1)
smoking : macular degeneration :: _______: _______
(a) sunlight: infection
(b) alcohol: optic nerve damage
Answer:
(b) alcohol: optic nerve damage

(vi) How do regular eye check-ups help in maintaining eye health? (Paragraph 1) (1)
Answer:
Regular eye check ups help detect early signs of eye conditions like cataracts and glaucoma and ensure that corrective treatments like glasses remain accurate and effective.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

(vii) What are the main ideas of paragraph 3 and 4? (1)
I. Eye injuries are rare and not a cause for concern.
II. Protective eyewear is essential to guard against UV rays.
III. Screen time should be regulated to prevent digital eye strain.
IV. Glasses should be worn at all times, even indoors.
V. Digital devices can help improve vision.

Options Main Idea of Paragraph 3 Main Idea of Paragraph 4
(a) I V
(b) II III
(c) IV II
(d) V I

Answer:
(b) II, III
[Paragraph 3 discusses the importance of protecting the eyes from harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays and Paragraph 4 focuses on the impact of digital screens on eye health and the need to regulate screen exposure to avoid problems like digital eye strain.]

(viii) According to paragraph 6, what kind of approach is needed to maintain good eye health in the long run? (2)
Answer:
A comprehensive approach involving regular exams, healthy habits and protection from environmental and digital stressors is essential to ensure long-term eye health.

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10)
1. The Gaganyaan Mission is India’s ambitious initiative to send humans into space, marking a significant milestone in the country’s space exploration efforts. Planned by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), the mission aims to demonstrate India’s capability to undertake crewed spaceflight and pave the way for future manned missions.

2. Scheduled for launch in 2023, the Gaganyaan Mission will involve sending a three-member crew into low Earth orbit aboard the Gaganyaan spacecraft. The spacecraft, equipped with life support systems, navigation and communication systems, will orbit the Earth for approximately seven days before returning to the surface.

3. The mission holds strategic importance for India, positioning the country among a select group of nations capable of human spaceflight. It also represents a significant technological leap for ISRO, showcasing its expertise in spacecraft design, launch vehicle technology and crewed mission operations.

4. As part of preparations for the Gaganyaan Mission, ISRO has conducted a series of tests and simulations to validate the spacecraft’s design and functionality. In December 2020, the successful launch and recovery of the Crew Escape System (CES) demonstrated the capability to safely evacuate astronauts in the event of an emergency during launch.

5. The Gaganyaan Mission is expected to have a lasting impact on India’s space program, inspiring future generations of scientists, engineers and astronauts. It will also contribute to international collaborations in space exploration and scientific research.

6. Moreover, the mission aligns with India’s broader objectives in space exploration, including expanding scientific knowledge, fostering innovation and enhancing national prestige on the global stage. By venturing into crewed spaceflight, India aims to demonstrate its commitment to pushing the boundaries of space exploration and harnessing space technology for the benefit of humanity.

7. In conclusion, the Gaganyaan Mission represents a significant leap forward for India’s space programme, showcasing the country’s capabilities in crewed spaceflight. With meticulous planning, rigorous testing and strategic collaboration, ISRO is poised to achieve its ambitious goal of sending humans into space and realising India’s spacefaring aspirations.

Answer the following questions based on your reading of the above passage.
(i) Why is the Gaganyaan Mission considered a significant milestone for India? (Paragraph 1)
This is so because the mission _______.
(a) focuses solely on satellite communication
(b) aims to demonstrate India’s capability in crewed spaceflight
(c) will launch India’s first satellite into deep space
(d) is conducted by a private space agency
Answer:
(b) aims to demonstrate India’s capability in crewed spaceflight
[Paragraph 1 clearly states that the mission aims to send humans into space, marking a significant achievement in India’s space efforts.]

(ii) Identify the phrase in paragraph 3 that highlights India’s entry into an elite group of countries capable of sending humans into space. (1)
Answer:
‘positioning the country among a select group of nations capable of human spaceflight’

(iii) Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the brackets. (Paragraph 2) (1)
The Gaganyaan spacecraft will spend about seven days in low Earth orbit, supported by _______ (crew training / life support systems).
Answer:
life support systems

(iv) What does the phrase ‘strategic importance’ imply in paragraph 3 with reference to the Gaganyaan Mission? (1)
Answer:
It means the mission boosts India’s global standing and showcases technological advancement in human spaceflight.

(v) Complete the following with the correct option. (1)
When the writer mentions the successful Crew Escape System test in paragraph 4, they mean
(a) the spacecraft is ready to travel to Mars
(b) ISRO has validated the safety system to evacuate astronauts during an emergency
(c) the mission will no longer require further safety testing
(d) the crew has already been selected and trained
Answer:
(b) ISRO has validated the safety system to evacuate astronauts during an emergency

(vi) Complete the following appropriately. (1)
The Gaganyaan Mission is expected to inspire future generations because it _______ (Paragraph 5)
Answer:
demonstrates India’s ability to achieve human spaceflight, motivating scientists, engineers and future astronauts

(vii) How does the mission contribute to India’s global presence and scientific progress? (Paragraph 6) (1)
Answer:
It enhances India’s prestige, encourages international collaboration, expands scientific knowledge and supports innovation.

(viii) Explain how the rigorous testing and planning contribute to the mission’s expected success. (Paragraph 7) (2)
Answer:
Rigorous testing ensures that every system functions reliably and safely, while meticulous planning prepares ISRO to handle complex challenges. Together, they reduce risks and increase the mission’s chances of success,

(ix) Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. (Paragraph 7)
ISRO’s Gaganyaan Mission highlights India’s commitment to becoming a _______ nation in space exploration.
Answer:
leading

Section – B
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills (20 Marks)

Grammar

Question 3.
Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks as directed. (10 × 1 = 10)
(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket for the given portion of the letter. (1)
Subject Complaint against Faulty Refrigerator
Sir
This is to respectfully submit that I write this letter with extreme disappointment that the product I _______ (received) is faulty.
Answer:
have received

(ii) Read the given sentence from a government regulation. Identify the error and supply the correction in the sentence. (1)
If a person does not have patience, he could not learn anything.
Use the given format for your response.

Error Correction

Answer:

Error Correction
could can

(iii) Shreya shared some information, with Sneha, about the location of the bank.
Report Shreya’s question. (1)
Shreya said, “Do you know where the nearest bank is”?
Answer:
Shreya asked Sneha if she knew where the nearest bank was.
Students often make mistakes while reporting questions, and don’t convert interrogative sentence structure into a statement

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

(iv) Read the dialogue between Drishti and Anu. (1)
Drishti Where are you going?
Anu I am going to a cafe called ‘Hudson’ for Arti’s birthday.
Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue.’
Drishti asked Anu where she was going. Anu told her that _______

(a) she is going to a cafe called Hudson for a birthday.
(b) she would be gone toa cafer for a birthday.
(c) she was going to a cafe called Hudson for Arti’s birthday.
(d) she will go to a cafe ‘Hudson’ for Arti’s birthday.
Answer:
(c) she was going to a cafe called Hudson for Arti’s birthday.

(v) Fill in the blank to complete the sentence. (1)
He promised his father that he will become _______ (a/an/the) best student ever.
Answer:
the
Don’t commit mistakes by using ‘a’ instead of ‘the’ when referring to someone unique or specific.

(vi) Complete the sentence with the most appropriate word. (1)
After using the computer for a time, we must wash our eyes with cold water.
(a) long
(b) longest
(c) longer
(d) low
Answer:
(a) long

(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following line. (1)
He finally decides to call her to know how she was doing.

Options Error Correction
(a) to on
(b) was is
(c) decide decided
(d) call calling

Answer:
(c)

(viii) Fill in the blank. (1)
The Principal said that it _______ him great pleasure to meet the students that evening. (1)
(a) gives
(b) gave
(c) was giving
(d) is giving
Answer:
(b) gave

(ix) Read the conversation below complete the sentence by reporting it correctly. (1)
“Alas! I have broken my arm,” said Amit.
Amit exclaimed painfully that _______
Answer:
he had broken his arm

(x) I can’t stand it anymore. I around the furniture since breakfast. (1)
(a) am dancing
(b) have been dancing
(c) have dancing
(d) was dancing
Answer:
(b) have been dancing

(xi) Select the correct option to fill in the blanks for the given line. (1)
There _______ something wrong with the bike today.
(a) must be
(b) should have been
(c) must have been
(d) could have been
Answer:
(a) must be

(xii) Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb. Have the goal or don’t know where to go? (1)
Here we _______ (be).
Answer:
are

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Writing (10)
Note: All details presented in the questions in writing setction are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. (5)
A. You are Ritika Sharma, a resident of Delhi. You often see various hoardings and flyers calling out obesity and claiming to decrease weight in a stipulated time. You feel, with the increase in choice of processed food and an inactive lifestyle, the problem of obesity is rising. Write a letter to the Editor of ‘The Times’, Delhi expressing your concern regarding the issue and suggest measures that can be taken to reduce the problem. (120 words)
Answer:
36-D, Nehru Enclave
Jangpura
New Delhi-110014
1st March, 20XX
The Editor
The Times
Delhi-110002

Subject Increasing Problem of Obesity

Sir/Ma’am
Through the columns of your esteemed daily, I wish to throw light on the increasing problem of obesity among all age groups. Obesity is a medical condition in which excess body fat accumulates to an extent that can have negative health impacts. It is caused mainly when we consume food high in fats and sugar and do little to no exercise. The advancing technology has prompted people to adopt a sedentary lifestyle as everything can be done with just a ‘click’. Also, we are fully aware that processed foods have high amount of calories. Both these factors are the primary causes behind the increasing cases of obesity.
It is high time we took measures against this problem. Yoga camps and other physical activities can be organised at regular intervals. The government has also installed gym equipment in public parks which can be used by the general public. Awareness campaigns regarding healthy diets and importance of physical exercise can also be organised.
I hope my thoughts might bring some positive change!

Thanking you

Yours sincerely
Ritika Sharma

Or

B. Write a letter in 120 words to the Municipal Corporation, Agra expressing your concern about the increasing risk of Malaria and Dengue in your area. You are Abhimanyu Sikri of 202, M.G. Road, Agra.
Answer:
202, M.G. Road
Agra-132210
27th July, 20XX
The Chairman
Municipal Corporation
Agra-132210

Subject Increasing Risk of Malaria and Dengue

Sir/Ma’am
This is to inform you that I, Abhimanyu Sikri, a resident of M.G. Road, Agra. Through this letter, I would like to draw your attention to the waterlogging near XYZ Apartments, M.G. Road which is a result of the recent heavy rainfall. Every year in the months of July and August, we face the problem concerning ailments like Malaria and Dengue. The mosquitoes breed in the stagnant water on the roads, in the streets and other such places. Their breeding ultimately results in increasing cases of Malaria and Dengue.
We are facing the risk of these ailments this year too.
General preventive measures such as fogging, cleaning drains & spreading awareness must be taken to resolve the issue.

Thanking you

Yours faithfully
Abhimanyu Sikri

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. (5)
A. The graph below shows the number of books read by men and women at Burnaby Public Library from 2011 to 2014. Study the data and write an analytical paragraph on the same in 120 words.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 1
Answer:
The line graph illustrates changes in reading habits of male and female readers at Burnaby Public Library, in 3 years, starting from 2011. Overall, women read more books than men in 2011 at Burnaby Public Library, but the number of books that men read continually increased as time went by while for women, this figure declined after having risen steadily for the first 2 years. Men and women read 3,000 and 5,000 books respectively in 2011 at Burnaby Public Library. And, it clearly shows that women enjoyed more books than men did. And, in the following year, while the number of books men finished reading increased by one-third, it increased by 5000 for women, exactly twice as many books as the figure for men.

It is worth noticing that women and men read the same number of books (10,000) in the year 2013, as men’s interest in books skyrocketed. Women also read more books this year than in 2012 but the change was less noticeable (exactly a quarter). Additionally, the figure for men further surged to 14000 books in 2014 but there was a fall in the reading habits of women as the number of books went down to 7000. In brief, men were less interested in reading books than women in this library at first but men have shown a change of their interest in later years.

Or

B. The following flow chart has been taken from a science magazine. Study it and write an analytical paragraph on the same in 120 words.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 2
Answer:
The flow chart depicts the process of converting aluminium scrap into pure aluminium ingots. The process involves melting impure aluminium scrap in a furnace at high temperatures above 1000 degrees Celsius. The impurities in the scrap are then separated and the molten aluminium is cast into ingots. The impurities are disposed of while the pure aluminium ingots are packed and sold for use in various industries. This process helps to recycle aluminium and reduce waste, making it an environmentally friendly process. Furthermore, the use of aluminium ingots in various applications, such as in the manufacturing of aircraft, automobiles and household products, helps to conserve energy and reduce carbon emissions. Overall, this flow chart demonstrates the importance of recycling and reusing materials to reduce waste and preserve natural resources.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the given two, (A) or (B).

Or

A. “Tell me another!” scoffed Pranjol.
“We have an Indian legend too.
Bodhidharma, an ancient Buddhist ascetic, cut off his eyelids because he felt sleepy during meditations. Ten tea plants grew out of the eyelids. The leaves of these plants when put in hot water and drunk, banished sleep.”
“Tea was first drunk in China,” Rajvir added, “as far back as 2700 B.C.!” In fact, words such as tea, chai and chini are from the Chinese. Tea came to Europe only in the sixteenth century and was drunk more as medicine than as beverage. (Glimpses of India)

(i) What is the main idea of this extract? Choose the most suitable option. (1)
(a) Tea as a popular beverage in Europe and how it spread.
(b) Origin of tea in India and why it became popular in Europe.
(c) Importance of India in popularising tea and influencing Europe.
(d) Indian legend on tea and how it travelled from China to Europe.
Answer:
(d) Indian legends on tea and how it travelled from China to Europe.

(ii) Why do you think Pranjol ‘scoffed’?
Answer:
Pranjol scoffed because he was amused and tickled at what Rajvir shared about tea. The scoff is a marker of his disbelief about the outlandish stories about tax that Rajvir was sharing.

(iii) What tone or attitude is most clearly reflected through the phrases ‘Tell me another!’ and ‘banished sleep’ ? (1)
I. sarcasm
II. admiration
III. disbelief
IV. amusement
V. curiosity

Select the correct option.
(a) I and III
(b) II, IV and V
(c) I, IV and V
(d) III and V
Answer:
(c) I, IV, and V

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

(iv) When did tea come to Europe? (1)
Answer:
Tea came to Europe in the sixteenth century.

Or

B. Max was slender, a little less than tall, with features that suggested slightly the crafty, pointed countenance of a fox. There was about him – aside from the gun – nothing especially menacing.
“The report,” he murmured. “The report that is being brought to you tonight concerning some new missiles. I thought I would take it from you. It will be safer in my hands than in yours”. Ausable moved to an armchair and sat down heavily. “I’m going to raise the devil with the management this time and you can bet on it,” he said grimly. (The Midnight Visitor)

(i) What tone does the following line express?
“This is the second time in a month that somebody has got into my room through that nuisance of a balcony!”
(a) Angry
(b) Frustrated
(c) Reassured
(d) Energised
Answer:
(b) frustrated

(ii) How was Max described in the extract? Answer in about 40 words.
Answer:
Max was described as slender, little less than tall with crafty features that suggested slightly the crafty, pointed countenance of a fox. There was about him – aside from the gun – nothing especially menacing.

(iii) What do the descriptions ‘crafty, pointed countenance of a fox’ and ‘I’m going to raise the devil with the management’ reveal about the characters?
II. Ausable is genuinely scared
III. Ausable maintains a calm and controlled demeanor
IV. Max appears threatening due to his gun V. Ausable uses wit to handle tense situations

Select the correct option.
(a) I, II, and IV
(b) I, III and V
(c) II, IV and V
(d) I, IV and V
Answer:
(b) I, III and V

(iv) Was there a balcony in Ausable’s room? (1)
Answer:
No, there was no balcony in Ausable’s room.

Question 7.
Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the given two.

A. The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree
Has given my heart
A change of mood
And saved some part
Of a day I had rued. (Dust of Snow)

(i) The crow and hemlock are usually used as negative references in literature. How is this different in this poem? (2)
Answer:
It is true that the crow and the hemlock tree are considered negative images and symbols of bad omen.
However, in the poem, they are shown in a positive light. They are shown to bring about a positive change in the poet who was in sorrow and despair.

(ii) Fill in the blank with ONE WORD. (1)
The poet was out on the cold snowy day when the dust of snow fell on him and changed his _______ mood.
Answer:
sad

(iii) How does the use of ‘a crow’ and ‘a hemlock tree’ impact this extract? (1)
Answer:
The use of ‘a crow’ and ‘a hemlock tree in the extract’ sets a gloomy atmosphere.

(iv) Select the option that correctly represents what ‘dust of snow’ mean? (1)
(a) fine particles of snow
(b) big chunks of snow
(c) soil covered in snow
(d) dust of shimmer
Answer:
(a) fine particles of snow

B. Some say the world will end in fire,
Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice. (Fire and Ice)

(i) Why does the poet hold with those who favour fire? Answer in about 40 words. (2)
Answer:
The poet takes side with those who believe that the world will be destroyed by fire and thus, connects it with desire. According to him, desire is powerful and would be a quick end. Moreover, the fact that he has had personal experience with desire leads him to conclude that the world will end in fire.

(ii) Complete the following suitably. (1)
The poet’s tone in the extract is _______
Answer:
cautious

(iii) What is the message that the poet is trying to convey? (1)
Answer:
Through the poem ‘Fire and Ice’, the poet preaches that our powerful emotions of extreme passion and hatred will eventually drag the world toward a catastrophic end.

(iv) According to the poet, what does fire refer to? (1)
1. Violent desires
2. Passions
3. Jealously
4. Bad temper

Select the correct option.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1 and 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions in about 40-50 words. (4 × 3 = 12)
(i) What do you know about the Kodavus? Answer in reference to the chapter ‘Glimpses of India’.
Refer to the given line from the text
The fiercely independent people ofCoorg are possibly of Greek or Arabic descent.
Answer:
There are two stories regarding the descent of Kodavu people.
(a) Kodavus are of Greek origin. A part of Alexander’s army settled here and married among the locals. Their descendants are called Kodavus.
(b) Kodavus are of Arab origin. They wear the same traditional dress Kuppia, i.e. a long, black coat with embroidered waist belt as the Kuffia of the Arabs and the Kurds.

(ii) Describe the bravery of everyone in the house in the poem ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’.
Answer:
In the poem, everyone in the house except the dragon was brave. Belinda was as brave as a barrel full of bears. Ink and Blink were brave enough to chase lions away. Even Mustard was as brave as an angry tiger. It was only Custard, who was a coward.

(iii) How did Kisa Gotami realise that life and death is a process? (The Sermon at Benaras)
Answer:
Kisa Gotami realised that life and death is a normal process when she went from house to house but was unable to find even one house where nobody had died. It was when she sat down that she realised that death is common to everyone. Those who are born will die one day.

(iv) Why does the poet compare the fog to a cat? (Fog)
Answer:
The poet compares the fog to a cat because of similarity in their movements. The silent steps of a cat and the way it sits by folding its knees are both very similar to the way fog comes and surrounds the city and harbour and looks over it.

(v) Do you think that, after his experience, the narrator would be able to truly enjoy the English breakfast he had yearned for? Why/Why not? (The Black Aeroplane-Two Stories About Flying)
Answer:
After his experience with the storm, the narrator would not be able to truly enjoy the English breakfast he had yearned for. Even though he landed safely from that storm, he had certain questions and doubts about that black aeroplane and its pilot whom he met up in the storm that helped him pass through it.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions in about 40-50 words. (2 × 3 = 6)
(i) “Ausable shows great presence of mind in a situation of danger and surprise.” Do you agree with this statement? If yes, why? (The Midnight Visitor)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement as Ausable showed great presence of mind when Max pointed a gun at him as he entered the hotel room with Fowler. He remained calm and cool and started inventing stories as required to fool Max into jumping to his death.

(ii) How do you know that Tricki had an affluent life? (A Triumph of Surgery)
Answer:
We know that Tricki had an affluent life because he was a loved and pampered pet of a wealthy owner, Mrs. Pumphrey. She made sure that her pet had everything he may need or require. He not only had a complete wardrobe of coats but also separate bowls for food. He also had many toys, cushions and rubber rings. All these luxury items show that he lived a well-off life.

(iii) How would you assess Griffin as a scientist? (Footprints Without Feet)
Answer:
Griffin was a brilliant scientist. His great capabilities came forward when he continuously conducts experiments to prove that the human body can become invisible. After a lot of effort, he proves so by making himself invisible. However, his greatness is reduced because of his lawless actions. This discovery could have been used to benefit society but is only by him used for his own benefit.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. (1 × 6 = 6)
A. Was the young Seagull same bird at the beginning and at the end of the lesson? Compare and contrast two kinds of the same Seagull in the ‘His First Flight- Two Stories about Flying’.
Answer:
No, the young seagull was not the same at the start and end of the story. In the beginning, he was very scared to fly. He stayed alone on the ledge while his brothers and sister flew away. He thought his wings were too weak to support him. His parents tried to encourage him by scolding and threatening that he would starve if he did not fly.

At the end, he changed completely. Hunger made him dive toward the fish his mother held. As he fell, his wings spread out on their own. He started flying without fear. He felt happy and confident. His family cheered for him because he had finally learned to fly and overcome his fear.

Or

B. Nature has many wonders that people take for granted and never pay attention to it. How is the poem ‘Fog’ different from this perspective?
Answer:
Nature is full of wonders and beautiful things, but most people ignore them and take them for granted. In the poem ‘Fog’, the poet Carl Sandburg shows how much he enjoys and admires nature. He finds even simple things, like fog, very special. The fog catches his attention so much that he compares it to a cat.

He notices how the fog comes quietly, moves slowly and sits peacefully, just like a cat does. This shows how closely he observes nature.
His poem inspires us to look around and notice the little things in the world. It tells us to enjoy and respect nature instead of ignoring it. We can find beauty in everyday sights if we pay attention.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions in about 100-120 words. (1 × 6 = 6)
A. Matilda wanted to live a life above her status. How did this desire of her’s led to her sufferings.
(The Necklace)
Answer:
Matilda came from a clerk’s family and married a clerk. They had a small income, just enough for their needs. But Matilda always wanted to live a life above her status. She dreamed of wealth and luxury. To look rich and impress others, she spent four hundred francs on a fancy dress and borrowed a necklace from her friend. Sadly, she lost the necklace. To replace it, they borrowed a lot of money and spent their savings. For ten years, they worked very hard and lived in poverty to repay the debt.

If Matilda had been happy with her simple life, she would not have faced such suffering. Her desire to appear rich and her pride brought her misery and ruined her happiness.

  • Matilda’s vanity drives her to borrow and overspend.
  • Loses necklace, leading to lifelong hardship.
  • Shows dangers of pride and meterial obsession.

Or

B. Why did Fowler feel that Ausable did not fit the typical image of a secret agent? What changed his opinion later in the story ‘The Midnight Visitor’?
Answer:
At first, Fowler was disappointed to meet Ausable because he did not match the typical image of a secret agent. Ausable was fat, spoke with an American accent and seemed more like a common man than a mysterious spy. Fowler had expected someone glamorous, thrilling and full of action. However, his opinion changed completely after he witnessed Ausable’s intelligence and quick thinking. Ausable calmly handled a dangerous situation by tricking the intruder, Max, using a clever story about a fake balcony and the police.
This quick-witted response saved them without any violence. Fowler then realised that true intelligence, not appearance, defines a real spy. Ausable proved that brainpower and composure are the true tools of a successful secret agent.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.



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